DETAILED ANALYSIS OF UPSC CDS 2 2022 EXAM

CDS EXAM ANALYSIS:

On September 4, 2022, the Union Public Service Commission successfully conducted the exam for English UPSC CDS-2 2022. Numerous students appeared in the examination, and their reviews indicate that the level of the exam was moderate. Our team has visited the exam centres to gather feedback from the students about the exams and to collect the questions which have been asked in the examination.

CDS EXAM SCHEDULE:

Firstly have a look at the exam schedule:-

CDS 2 EXAM PATTERN 2022:

Before you head start to the UPSC CDS 2 2022 Exam Analysis, you should have a look at the CDS-2 Exam Pattern 2022 of the examination which will help you to understand the analysis more clearly;-

GOOD ATTEMPTS & DIFFICULTY LEVEL:

UPSC CDS 2 ENGLISH PAPER ANALYSIS:

As we know the English Language exam was easy to moderate and 120 questions were asked in this examination. Here we provide you with the UPSC CDS 2 English Paper Analysis in detail. 

Topics 

The questions have been asked in this section from the below-mentioned topics:-

UPSC CDS ENGLISH PAPER TRICKY QUESTIONS:

Have a look at CDS English Important Questions to know the difficulty level of the questions.

FILL IN THE BLANKS

Directions: Each of the following sentences in

this section has a blank space and four words

or group of words are given after the sentence.

Select the most appropriate word or group of

words for the blank space and indicate your

response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

1. He _______ waiting for you since morning.

(a) have been

(b) has been

(c) Is

(d) Had been

Ans. B

2. What you propose is ________.

(a) on question

(b) in question

(c) where the question

(d) out of the question

Ans. D

3. The campaign is in _________.

(a) full swing

(b) full of circles

(c) full length

(d) full mode

Ans. A

4. Life has been thrown ___________ due to the

weather conditions in the city

(a) in the gear

(b) out of gear

(c) About

(d) in spirits

Ans. B

5. Had he told me the news beforehand, I

_________ careful and saved my money.

(a) Should have been

(b) Had been

(c) Will be

(d) Would have been

Ans. D

6. He feels that he has been taken ________.

(a) taken for granted

(b) taken as granted

(c) taken for ease

(d) taken in it

Ans. A

USAGE OF PAIRED WORDS

Directions : In the following questions a pair of

similar sounding words is provided. You are

required to select the option that most

appropriately describes the meaning of both

the words and mark your response on the

Answer Sheet accordingly.

7. ‘Perspicacity' and 'Perspicuity‘

(a)Perspicacity means ability to discern and

Perspicuity means lucidity of expression

(b)Perspicacity means lucidity of expression

and Perspicuity means ability to discern

(c) Perspicacity means tenacity and Perspicuity

means lucidity of expression

(d) Perspicacity means ability to discern and

Perspicuity means tenacity

Ans. A

8. ‘Deify’ and ‘Defy’

(a) To deify means to confer upon one the status of God

and to defy means to oppose

(b) To deify means to confer upon one the status of

God and to defy means to deny

(c) To deify means to oppose and to defy means to

confer upon one the status of God

(d) To deify means to oppose and to defy means to

deny

Ans. A

9. ‘Sympathy’ and ‘Empathy’

(a) Sympathy means sharing another’s feelings and

Empathy means understanding another’s feelings.

(b) Sympathy means expressing another’s feelings and

Empathy means sharing another’s feelings

(c) Sympathy means pitying another’s feelings and

Empathy means emphasising another’s feelings.

(d) Sympathy means emphasising another's feelings

and Empathy means pitying another's feelings

Ans. A

10. ‘Emigrate’ and ‘Immigrate’

(a) Emigrate means to illegally go to another country

and Immigrate means to arrive at another country

(b) Emigrate means to arrive at another country and

Immigrate means to leave for another country

(c) Emigrate means to leave for another country and

Immigrate means to illegally entry a country

(d) Emigrate means to leave for another country and

Immigrate means to arrive at another country

Ans. D

ORDERING OF WORDS IN A SENTENCE

Directions: Each of the following items in this

section consists of a sentence, parts of which

have been jumbled. These parts have been

labelled as P, Q, R and S. Given below each

sentence are four sequences, namely (a), (b),

(c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the

jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your

response accordingly.

11. in the filaments of rubidium is used

P

Q

which convert light energy into electrical energy

R

photoelectric cells

S

(a) QPSR

(b) QSRP

(c) SRQP

(d) RSQP

Ans. A

12. he urged so many to get involved

P

who has left his mark

Q

this is the final word of an educational philosopher

R

on a world in which

S

(a) RSPQ

(b) SPQR

(c) QPRS

(d) RQSP

Ans. D

13. must support the main part

P

the beginning and the concluding line

Q

described in the story or the events

R

S

(a) QSRP

(b) QPSR

(c) RSQP

(d) SRQP

Ans. A

SPOTTING ERRORS

Directions: Each item in this section has a

sentence with three underlined parts labelled

as (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find

out whether there is any error in any underlined

part and indicate your response on the Answer

Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a)

or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response

should be indicated as (d).

14. It would be nice to have

a good evening stroll

(a)

(b)

after five hours of office.

No error

(c)

(d)

Ans. B

15. This testing method requires

(a)

one the fast overnight after which

(b)

the fasting blood sugar level is measured.

(c)

No error

(d)

Ans. D

PARTS OF SPEECH

Directions: Each of the following

sentences has a word or phrase

underlined. Read the sentences carefully

and find which part of speech the

underlined word belongs to. Indicate your

response on the Answer Sheet

accordingly.

PARTS OF SPEECH

Directions: Each of the following

sentences has a word or phrase

underlined. Read the sentences carefully

and find which part of speech the

underlined word belongs to. Indicate your

response on the Answer Sheet

accordingly.

16. A zero is a zero always.

(a) Noun

(b) Compound noun

(c) Pronoun

(d) Adjective

Ans. A

WORD MEANING

Directions: in the following questions a particular

word is provided. Four sentences have been

formed one of which makes use of the world

correctly. You are required to select the correct

option and mark your response on the Answer

Sheet accordingly.

17. ‘Alibli’

(a) The accused was acquitted because he provided

an alibli.

(b) The accused was acquitted because his alibi

was not accepted.

(c) The accused was acquitted because his alibi

was false.

(d) The accused was convicted because he provded

an alibli.

Ans. A

18. ‘Elicit’

(a) The call centre's operations were found to be

elicit. :

(b) The elicit ties between them were discovered by

chance.

(c) The demand for further information did not elicit

an enthusiastic response.

(d) The elicit reasons stated were found to be

insufficient.

Ans. A

UPSC CDS 2022 GS PAPER ANALYSIS:

As per the reviews of the students, the overall difficulty level for the General Knowledge paper was Moderate to Hard Level and the candidates have to answer all 120 questions in 2 hrs.

Topics 

The questions have been asked in this section from the below-mentioned topics:-

IMPORTANT QUESTIONS OF GS PAPER:

Important questions which have been asked in this section:-

1. Which one of the following is the first and the oldest Government-owned coal mining company in India?

(a) Neyveli Lignite Corporation

(b) Singareni Collieries Company Limited

(c) Coal India Limited

(d) Mahanadi Coalfields Limited

2. Consider the following statements about Karewas :

1. These are the lacustrine deposits of Pleistocene period. 

2. These are found along the lower slopes of Pir Panjal.

3. Karewas are well known for the cultivation of saffron, almond and walnut. 

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) None

3. Consider the following statements about an Indian State:

1. It is well known globally for its variety of rocks and minerals.

2. It has the largest deposits of Chrysotile Asbestos in the country.

3. The Neelam Sanjiva Reddy Sagar Hydel Project is located in this State.

Identify the State from, the following:

(a) Jharkhand

(b) Rajasthan

(c) Andhra Pradesh

(d) Chhattisgarh

4. During 2020-21, when India was passing through the adverse effects of COVID-19, which one of the following sectors witnessed positive growth? 

(a) Mining and quarrying 

(b) Electricity, gas, water supply and other utility services

(c) Financial, real estate and professional services 

(d) Public administration, defence and other services 

5. An electrical circuit having combinations of resistances and capacitance is given below. The current, flowing through the circuit will be-

(a) 1A

(b) 2A

(c) 1.5 A

(d) 0.5 A

6. The device used for measuring electric current in a circuit is called?

(a) Ammeter

(b) Motor

(c) Voltmeter

(d) Generator

7. India has achieved the 10 per cent Ethanol blending much ahead of the targeted date. Which one among the following greatly benefits from this?

(a) Cassava plantations 

(b) Maize farming

(c) Sugar industry

(d) Wine industry

8. Consider the following statements regarding e-RUPI prepaid digital vouchers:

1. The maximum amount of e-RUPI is rupees one lakh.

2. Beneficiaries can receive e-RUPI without having a bank account.

3. To receive e-RUPI on mobile phones, beneficiaries need a smartphone with an Internet connection.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 2 only 

9. What were Manigramam and Nanadesi in early medieval India?

(a) A cluster of non-revenue paying villages

(b) Village-level community groups

(c) Giailds of Ludian merchants

(d) Literary societies in the capital towns

10. Consider the following pairs of Schedule and Contents of the Constitution of India:

1. First Schedule: Forms of Oaths or Affirmations

2. Third Schedule: Allocation of seats in the council of states

3. Fifth Schedule: Provisions related to the administration of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes

4. Ninth Schedule: Provision related to the administration of tribal areas in certain states 

How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

11. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Under Article 21A of the Constitution of India, the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children up to the age of eleven years. 

(b) Every religious denomination has got absolute power under Article 26 of the Constitution of India to manage its own affairs in matters of religion.

(C) Only religious and linguistic minorities find a mention in Article 30 of the Constitution of India in reference to the right to establish educational institutions of their choice.

(d) Parliament cannot empower, even by law, any court other than the Supreme Court of India the power to issue writs within the local limits of its jurisdiction.

12. Which one of the following sedimentary rocks has not been formed mechanically?

(a) Sandstone

(b) Conglomerate

(c) Lоess

(d) Geyserites

13. Which of the following statements about the coasts of India is/are correct?

1. The West Coast of India is a high rocky, retreating coast. 

2. The West Coast of India is dominated by erosional landforms.

3. The East Coast of India, however, is a low sedimentary coast exhibiting depositional forms.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

14. Which one of the following States/UTs has the largest area under Coral Reefs in India?

(a) Gujarat

(b) Tamil Nadu

(c) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

(d) Lakshadweep

15. If you were to browse a table of a recent period showing life expectancy at birth for all categories of rural-urban and male-female divisions for all States of India, you are not likely to observe that-

1. Urban life expectancy is higher than the rural one. 

2. Male life expectancy is higher than female one. 

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

16. Consider the following statements:

The Government is promoting the 'Kisan Drone' for-

1. Spraying weedicides

2. Digitisation of land records 

3. Crop assessment

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(a) 1 only

(d) 3 only 

17. While forming the 'Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity", the member countries launched collective discussions towards future negotiations on four pillars. Which one of the following is not one of those pillars?

(a) Clean energy, decarbonisation and infrastructure

(b) Defence cooperation and intelligence sharing

(c) Supply chain

(d) Tax and anti-corruption

UPSC CDS 2 ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS PAPER ANALYSIS:

The Elementary Mathematics paper was of easy to moderate difficulty level and the candidates were given 100 questions to solve in 2 hours.

Topics

The questions were asked in this paper from the below-mentioned topics:-

IMPORTANT QUESTIONS OF ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS PAPER:

Important questions which were asked in this section:-

1. If p is the difference between a number and its reciprocal and q is the difference between the square of the same number and the square of its reciprocal, then what is p 4 + 4p2 equal to?

(a) 4 q

(b) 8 q

(c) 4q2

(d) q2

2. What is the HCF of (x8-y8) and(x7-y7+x5 y2-x2 y6)?

(a) x2+y2)

(b) (x2-y2)

(c) (x3-y3-x2 y+x y2)

(d) (x3-y3+x2y-xy2)

3. If (x+k) is the HCF of x2+px+q and x2+qx+p, where p≠q, then what is the value of k?

(a) -1

(b) 0

(c) 1/2

(d) 1

4. What is 1/x(x-y)(x-z)}+1/y(y-z)(y-x)+1/z(z-x)(z-y) equal to ?

(a) 0

(b) 1

(c) 1/xyz

(d) -1/x y z

 5. A closed box is built of the wood of uniform thickness. Its external dimensions are 12 cm, 10 cm and 8 cm. If the inner surface area is 376 square cm, then what is the thickness of the wood?

(a) 0.5cm

(b) 1cm

(d) 2cm

6. ABCD is a parallelogram. A circle through A, B and C intersects CD (produced) at E. Which of the following is/are correct?

1. AE=AD

2. CD=DE

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

7. A triangle has side lengths x cm, x+13 cm and x+26 cm. If its area is 126 square cm, then what is the value of x ?

(a) 18

(b) 17

(c) 16

(d) 15

8. ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral. AB and DC when produced, meet in E. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. △EBC is similar to △EAD.

2. ∠CBE + ∠ DAE=180°

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

9. A rectangular metal sheet is of length 24 cm and a breadth of 18 cm. From each of its corners, a square of side x cm is cut off and an open box is made of the remaining sheet. If the volume of the box is 640 cubic cm, then what is the value of x?

(a) 2

(b) 3

(c) 4

(d) 6

10. If M is the mean of the first 100 even natural numbers, then what is the mean of the first 100 odd natural numbers?

(a) M-1

(b) M

(a) M+1

(d) M+2

11. In a  △BC, ∠A=2θ, ∠B= ∠C=4θ and θ satisfies 4sin2θ +2sin θ-1=0. What is the ratio of BC to AB?

(a) (5)-1

(b) (5-1)/ 2

(c)(5-1)/4

(d) 2(5-1)

12. What is the diameter of a circle inscribed in a regular polygon of 15 sides with side length unity?

(a) 0.5 cot 12°

(b) cot 12°

(c) 0.5 tan 12°

(d) tan 12°

13. How much water will remain in the vessel after the overflow?

(a) 288πmL

(b) 360πmL

(c) 480 πmL

(d) 500πmL

14. What is the ratio of the lateral surface area of the vessel to the surface area of the sphere?

(a) 4/3

(b) 3/2

(c) 5/3 

(d) 2

15. What is the area of the minor segment?

(a) l2/2{x-1/2}

(b) l2/4{x-1/2}

(c) l2/4{x/2-1}

(d) l2/2{x/2-1//2}

16. The perpendicular AD on the base BC of a triangle ABC intersects BC at D so that DB=3 CD. Which one of the following is correct?

(a) 2(AB+AC)(AB-AC)=BC2

(b) 3(AB+AC)(AB-AC)=2BC2

(c) 4(AB+AC)(AB-AC)=3BC2

(d) 5(AB+AC)(AB-AC)=4BC2

17. In a △ABC, ∠A=60. What is AB2+AC2-BC2 equal to?

(a) AB.AC

(b) AB.BC

(c) AC.BC

(d) 2 AB.AC

RELEVANT LINKS:

To access the videos of the most tricky questions and answer keys of the questions which were asked in the particular exam is listed below:-

English Language Most Tricky Questions

UPSC CDS 2 2022 Answer Key

UPSC CDS 2 Important Questions

FAQS ON CDS PAPER ANALYSIS 2022:

Hope you have found the above-mentioned article useful. Here we are providing you with the questions which are mostly asked by the students. These questions will clear all your doubts regarding the CDS Exam Analysis. Have a look:-

Q. What is the difficulty level of the CDS 2 Exam?

A. As per the student's review, the overall exam was easy to moderate. If we come to elaborate on each paper the CDS 2 2022 English Paper was Easy to moderate level, General Knowledge Paper was of moderate level and the paper of Elementary Mathematics was moderate to hard level.  

Q. How many questions were there from the current affairs?

A. In total 22 questions were asked from the previous 4-5 months' current affairs.

Q. How many seats are going to be filled through CDS 2 2022 Exam?

A. Through the UPSC CDS 2 2022 Exam, 339 seats are going to be filled this year.

Q. What is CDS 2022 Exam Analysis and what pointers does it contain?

A. Our CDS 2022 Exam Analysis gives you the detailed information about CDS 2 2022 Exam. You will be able to know the tricky questions of each paper which will help you understand the level of the question, the topics from which the most questions were asked and also the good attempts of each paper.

Q. How many questions must I attempt in order to get good marks?

A. A safe score in the CDS exam is estimated to be an attempt of 180–190 questions.

Q. How are CDS exam results determined?

A. The minimum qualifying marks for each subject and the minimum overall cut off will be prepared on the basis of number of candidates appeared and number of vacancies to be filled. This will be used to determine the CDS result for the written test. Based on the final suggested candidate's score, the CDS cut-off will be determined. Most importantly, each subject requires a minimum qualifying percentage of 20%.