Updated On : 18 May, 2023
On May 17, 2023, the UPSC CDS (II) Notification 2023 on 17th May 2023. This national-level exam is conducted to select candidates for the Indian Military Academy, Officers' Training Academy, Indian Naval Academy, and Indian Air Force Academy.
Interested applicants must ensure that they meet all the eligibility criteria for the examination. Admission at all stages of the exam is provisional and subject to meeting the prescribed eligibility conditions. Eligible candidates can submit their applications from May 17 to June 6, 2023.
To assist applicants in understanding the examination and the application process, we have provided comprehensive information in this article. It is recommended that individuals planning to appear for the examination carefully review this information before submitting their applications.
Exam conducting body | Union Public Service Commission |
Examination name | Combined Defence Services Examination (II) 2023 |
Application dates | 17th May to 6th June 2023 |
Application mode | Online |
Vacancy | 349 |
Official website | |
Official notice | |
Apply link |
Event | Date |
Notification issued on | 17th May 2023 |
Application starts on | 17th May 2023 |
Last date to apply | 6th June 2023 |
Modification in application form (Other than OTR Profile) | 07.06.2023 to 13.06.2023 |
Date of Examination | 3rd September 2023 |
A candidate must be unmarried and must either be:
(i) a Citizen of India, or
(ii) a subject of Nepal, or
(iii) a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka and East African Countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire and Ethiopia or Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India.
Military Wing | Marital Status and Age Limit |
IMA | Unmarried male candidates born not earlier than 2nd July, 2000 and not later than 1st July, 2005 only are eligible. |
Indian Naval Academy | Unmarried male candidates born not earlier than 2nd July, 2000 and not later than 1st July, 2005 only are eligible. |
Air Force Academy | 20 to 24 years as on 1st July, 2024 i.e. born not earlier than 2nd July, 2000 and not later than 1st July, 2004 (Upper age limit for candidates holding valid and current Commercial Pilot Licence issued by DGCA (India) is relaxable upto 26 yrs. i.e. born not earlier than 2nd July, 1998 and not later than 1st July, 2004 only are eligible. |
Officers' Training Academy | (SSC Course for men) unmarried male candidates born not earlier than 2nd July, 1999 and not later than 1st July, 2005 only are eligible. |
Officers' Training Academy | SSC Women Non-Technical Course) Unmarried women, issueless widows who have not remarried and issueless divorcees (in possession of divorce documents) who have not remarried are eligible. They should have been born not earlier than 2nd July, 1999 and not later than 1st July, 2005. |
Military Wing | Educational Qualification |
I.M.A. and Officers’ Training Academy, Chennai | Candidates should be graduated from a recognized University or equivalent. |
Indian Naval Academy | Candidates must have a Degree in Engineering from a recognised University/Institution |
Air Force Academy | Degree of a recognised University (with Physics and Mathematics at 10+2 level) or Bachelor of Engineering. |
Note:-
Candidates who have selected Army/Navy/Air Force as their first choice and are graduates must provide proof of their graduation by submitting their graduation/provisional certificates at the SSB interview, which will commence on a specific date.
Eligibility for the CDS Exam extends to candidates in their final year of college as well. However, during the SSB interview, they must present a genuine graduation certificate to the board.
Candidates must be physically fit according to physical standards for admission to Combined Defence Services Examination (2), 2023 as per guidelines given by the different wings.
To apply for the CDS (2) 2023 Exam, go to the UPSC official website.
You must enter your credentials in the "Part I" section of your application form.
You should first review the eligibility requirements before applying to the academy of your choice. (For example, the Indian Naval Academy, the Indian Air Force Academy, and so on.)
Following "Part A," a registration ID will be generated, and you can proceed to "Part B" of the CDS 2 application form.
Upload all scanned documents and signatures in the format specified. (PDF, JPEG, and so on).
Finally, you must pay the application fee and choose your examination location.
Double-check all details before clicking "Submit."
Keep the generated application number safe and make a copy of the final application form for future reference.
Application fee
Category | Application Fee |
General and Others | INR 200/- |
Female/SC/ST | Exempted |
Note:- Fees can be paid by remitting the money in any Branch of SBI by cash, or by using Visa/Master/Rupay Credit/Debit Card/UPI Payment or by using internet banking facility of any Bank
The selection process comprises three phases which include:
STEP 1- The candidate will have to first appear in the written examination. After clearing this stage, he will be called for the next stage.
STEP 2- The next stage to be cleared after the written examination is the SSB interview. SSB interview is divided into two phases. It is a four-five days-long process. The various tests of IO, GTO and Psych are designed to bring out the presence/absence of Officer Like Qualities and their trainability in a candidate.
STEP 3- Medical Test: Candidates who pass both the interview and the document verification rounds are eligible for the final round, which is the medical test.
The written examination and interviews for each course - Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy, Air Force Academy, and Officers' Training Academy - will have an equal maximum mark allocation. The maximum marks for the written examination and interviews will be 300 each for Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy, and Air Force Academy, while it will be 200 for Officers' Training Academy.
All the subjects' question papers will consist of objective-type questions only. The question papers for General Knowledge and Elementary Mathematics will be provided in both Hindi and English languages.
Candidates must personally write their answers in the papers; they will not be allowed to use a scribe under any circumstances.
The Commission has the discretion to determine the qualifying marks for any or all subjects of the examination.
Candidates are prohibited from using calculators while answering the objective-type papers. Therefore, calculators should not be brought inside the Examination Hall.
Subject | Code | Maximum Marks | Duration |
For Admission to Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy and Air Force Academy | |||
English | 11 | 100 | 2 Hours |
General Knowledge | 12 | 100 | 2 Hours |
Elementary Mathematics | 13 | 100 | 2 Hours |
For Admission to Officers’ Training Academy | |||
English | 11 | 100 | 2 Hours |
General Knowledge | 12 | 100 | 2 Hours |
The SSB procedure consists of two stage Selection processes - stage I and stage II. Only those candidates who clear stage I are permitted to appear for stage II. The details are:-
(a) Stage I comprises Officer Intelligence Rating (OIR) tests are Picture Perception* Description Test (PP&DT). The candidates will be shortlisted based on a combination of performance in the OIR Test and PP&DT.
(b) Stage II Comprises Interviews, Group Testing Officer Tasks, Psychology Tests and the Conference. These tests are conducted over 4 days.
ENGLISH (Code No. 01):- The question paper will be designed to test the candidates’ understanding of English and workmanlike use of words. | |
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (Code No. 02):- General Knowledge including knowledge of current events and of such matters of everyday observation and experience in their scientific aspects as may be expected of an educated person who has not made a special study of any scientific subject. The paper will also include questions on the History of India and Geography of a nature which candidate should be able to answer without special study | |
ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS (Code No. 03):- The standard of the papers in Elementary Mathematics will be of Matriculation level. The standard of papers in other subjects will approximately be such as may be expected of a graduate of an Indian University. | |
Topic | Sub Topic |
ARITHMETIC |
|
ALGEBRA | Basic Operations, simple factors, Remainder Theorem, H.C.F., L.C.M., Theory of polynomials, solutions of quadratic equations, relation between its roots and coefficients (Only real roots to be considered). Simultaneous linear equations in two unknowns—analytical and graphical solutions. Simultaneous linear inequations in two variables and their solutions. Practical problems leading to two simultaneous linear equations or inequations in two variables or quadratic equations in one variable & their solutions. Set language and set notation, Rational expressions and conditional identities, Laws of indices. |
TRIGONOMETRY | Sine ×, cosine ×, Tangent × when 0° < × < 90° Values of sin ×, cos × and tan ×, for × = 0°, 30°, 45°, 60° and 90° Simple trigonometric identities. Use of trigonometric tables. Simple cases of heights and distances |
GEOMETRY | Lines and angles, Plane and plane figures, Theorems on (i) Properties of angles at a point, (ii) Parallel lines, (iii) Sides and angles of a triangle, (iv) Congruency of triangles, (v) Similar triangles, (vi) Concurrence of medians and altitudes, (vii) Properties of angles, sides and diagonals of a parallelogram, rectangle and square, (viii) Circles and its properties including tangents and normals, (ix) Loc |
MENSURATION | Areas of squares, rectangles, parallelograms, triangle and circle. Areas of figures which can be split up into these figures (Field Book), Surface area and volume of cuboids, lateral surface and volume of right circular cones and cylinders, surface area and volume of spheres |
STATISTICS | Collection and tabulation of statistical data, Graphical representation frequency polygons, histograms, bar charts, pie charts etc. Measures of central tendency |
ENGLISH (Code No. 01):- The question paper will be designed to test the candidates’ understanding of English and workmanlike use of words. | |
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (Code No. 02):- General Knowledge including knowledge of current events and of such matters of everyday observation and experience in their scientific aspects as may be expected of an educated person who has not made a special study of any scientific subject. The paper will also include questions on the History of India and Geography of a nature which candidate should be able to answer without special study | |
ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS (Code No. 03):- The standard of the papers in Elementary Mathematics will be of Matriculation level. The standard of papers in other subjects will approximately be such as may be expected of a graduate of an Indian University. | |
Topic | Sub Topic |
ARITHMETIC |
|
ALGEBRA | Basic Operations, simple factors, Remainder Theorem, H.C.F., L.C.M., Theory of polynomials, solutions of quadratic equations, relation between its roots and coefficients (Only real roots to be considered). Simultaneous linear equations in two unknowns—analytical and graphical solutions. Simultaneous linear inequations in two variables and their solutions. Practical problems leading to two simultaneous linear equations or inequations in two variables or quadratic equations in one variable & their solutions. Set language and set notation, Rational expressions and conditional identities, Laws of indices. |
TRIGONOMETRY | Sine ×, cosine ×, Tangent × when 0° < × < 90° Values of sin ×, cos × and tan ×, for × = 0°, 30°, 45°, 60° and 90° Simple trigonometric identities. Use of trigonometric tables. Simple cases of heights and distances |
GEOMETRY | Lines and angles, Plane and plane figures, Theorems on (i) Properties of angles at a point, (ii) Parallel lines, (iii) Sides and angles of a triangle, (iv) Congruency of triangles, (v) Similar triangles, (vi) Concurrence of medians and altitudes, (vii) Properties of angles, sides and diagonals of a parallelogram, rectangle and square, (viii) Circles and its properties including tangents and normals, (ix) Loc |
MENSURATION | Areas of squares, rectangles, parallelograms, triangle and circle. Areas of figures which can be split up into these figures (Field Book), Surface area and volume of cuboids, lateral surface and volume of right circular cones and cylinders, surface area and volume of spheres |
STATISTICS | Collection and tabulation of statistical data, Graphical representation frequency polygons, histograms, bar charts, pie charts etc. Measures of central tendency |
The SSB procedure consists of two stage Selection processes - stage I and stage II. Only those candidates who clear stage I are permitted to appear for stage II. The details are:- (a) Stage I comprises Officer Intelligence Rating (OIR) tests are Picture Perception* Description Test (PP&DT). The candidates will be shortlisted based on a combination of performance in the OIR Test and PP&DT.
(b) Stage II Comprises Interview, Group Testing Officer Tasks, Psychology Tests and the Conference. These tests are conducted over 4 days. The details of these tests are given on the website www.joinindianarmy.nic.in.
Branch | Course | Vacancy |
Indian Military Academy, Dehradun | 157th (DE) Course commencing in July, 2024 [including 13 vacancies reserved for NCC `C’ (Army Wing) holders] | 100 |
Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala | Course commencing in July, 2024 Executive Branch (General Service)/Hydro [including 06 vacancies for NCC ‘C’ Certificate (Naval Wing) holders | 32 |
Air Force Academy, Hyderabad | (Pre-Flying) Training Course commencing in July, 2024 i.e. No. 216 F(P) Course. [including 03 vacancies are reserved for NCC `C’ Certificate (Air Wing) holders through NCC Special Entry] | 32 |
Officers’ Training Academy, Chennai (Madras) | 120th SSC (Men) (NT) (UPSC) Course Commencing in October, 2024. | 169 |
Officers Training Academy, Chennai (Madras) | 34th SSC Women (NT) (UPSC) Cours | 16 |
Total | 349 |
AGARTALA | GHAZIABAD | PANAJI (GOA) |
AGRA | GORAKHPUR | PATNA |
AJMER | GURGAON | PORT BLAIR |
AHMEDABAD | GWALIOR | PRAYAGRAJ (ALLAHABAD) |
AIZAWL | HYDERABAD | PUDUCHERRY |
ALIGARH | IMPHAL | PUNE |
ALMORA (UTTARAKHAND) | INDORE | RAIPUR |
ANANTAPUR | ITANAGAR | RAJKOT |
AURANGABAD (ANDHRA PRADESH) | JABALPUR | RANCHI |
BENGALURU | JAIPUR | SAMBALPUR |
BAREILLY | JAMMU | SHILLONG |
BHOPAL | JODHPUR | SHIMLA |
BILASPUR (CHHATISGARH) | JORHAT | SILIGURI |
CHANDIGARH | KOCHI | SRINAGAR |
CHENNAI | KOHIMA | SRINAGAR (UTTARAKHAND) |
COIMBATORE | KOLKATA | THANE |
CUTTACK | KOZHIKODE (CALCUTTA) | THIRUVANANTHAPURAM |
DEHRADUN | LEH | TIRUCHIRAPALLI |
DELHI | LUCKNOW | TIRUPATI |
DHARAMSHALA | LUDHIANA | UDAIPUR |
DHARWAD | MADURAI | VARANASI |
DISPUR | MANDI | VELLORE |
FARIDABAD | MUMBAI | VIJAYAWADA |
GANGTOK | MYSORE | VISHAKHAPATNAM |
GAYA | NAGPUR | WARANGAL |
GAUTAM BUDDH NAGAR | NAVI MUMBAI |
Stipend to Gentlemen or Lady Cadets during the entire duration of training in Service academies i.e. during training period at IMA and OTA. | Rs 56,100/-p.m.* (Starting pay in Level 10) |
*On successful commissioning, the pay in the Pay Matrix of the Officer commissioned shall be fixed in the first Cell of Level 10 and the period of training shall not be treated as commissioned service. Arrears on account of admissible allowances, as applicable, for the training period shall be paid to cadet
Rank | Level | Pay scale/ salary |
Lieutenant | 10 | INR 56,100-1,77,500 |
Captain | 10B | INR 61,300-1,93,900 |
Major | 11 | INR 69,400-2,07,200 |
Lieutenant colonel | 12A | INR 1,21,200-2,12,400 |
colonel | 13 | INR 1,30,600-2,15,900 |
brigadier | 13A | INR 1,39,600- 2,17,600 |
Major general | 14 | INR 1,44,200-2,18,200 |
Lieutenant general HAG scale | 15 | INR 1,82,200-2,24,100 |
HAG + scale | 16 | INR 2,05,400-2,24,400 |
VCOAS/ Lieutenant General ( NFSG)/ Army Cdr | 17 | INR 2,25,000(FIXED) |
COAS | 18 | INR 2,25,000 ( FIXED) |
Military Service Pay(MSP) to the officers from the rank of Lieutenant to Brigadier | Rs 15,500 p.m. fixed |
What is the date of the CDS 2 exam 2023?
The CDS 2 exam for 2023 is scheduled to be conducted on September 3, 2023.
What are the UPSC CDS 2 application dates?
The application period for UPSC CDS 2 exam is from May 17 to June 6, 2023.
How many marks are required to clear CDS?
To clear the CDS exam, candidates need to obtain a minimum qualifying mark of 20 marks, which is equivalent to 20% in each subject. Additionally, candidates must achieve qualifying marks separately in the written exam and SSB Interview.
What is the qualification for UPSC CDS-2 2023?
To be eligible for UPSC CDS-2 2023, candidates must be an Indian citizen and have completed graduation or be in the final year of their degree.
Can I apply for both CDS 1 and 2?
Yes, it is possible to apply for both CDS 1 and CDS 2 exams in the same year as they are conducted separately. However, it is not mandatory to appear for both exams.
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